College Lecturer in Computer Science PSC Previous Questions & Answers

Last Updated On: 30/04/2018

College Lecturer in Computer Science PSC Solved Questions: Are you searching for model questions and answers for college lecturer PSC examination questions and answers. Here are the previous PSC questions and answers for computer science college lecturer PSC examination.

 

College Lecturer in Computer Science PSC Previous Questions & Answers

1. Who called Ayyan Kali the Pulaya king in 1936?

(A) A K Gopalan

(B) Dr. Palpu

(C) Mahathma Gandhi

(D) V T Bhattathirippadu

Answer: C

2. The famous Sanskrit work Darsanamala was composed by ?

(A) Sree Narayana Guru

(B) Vaikunda Swamikal

(C) Chattampi Swamikal

(D) Sankaracharya

Answer: A

3. Malabar Special Police (MSP) was organised by the British in ?

(A) 1921

(B) 1854

(C) 1860

(D) 1880

Answer: Question Cancelled

4. Which amoung the following stories of Vaikom Muhammed Basheer is reflected in the Malayalam movie Bhargavi Nilayam ?

(A) Anargha Nimisham

(B) Balyakalasakhi

(C) Janmadinam

(D) Neela Velicham

Answer: D

5. The Augustan Age of Kerala music is the reign of ?

(A) Sri Chitra Tirunal

(B) Utram Tirunal

(C) Swati Tirunal

(D) Visakham Tirunal

Answer: C

6. Which country suggested the name Hudhud for the severe cyclonic storm -2014

(A) Bahrain

(B) Iran

(C) Saudi Arabia

(D) Oman

Answer: D

7. The First Radio Station in Kerala ?

(A) Cochin

(B) Thiruvananthapuram

(C) Alappuzha

(D) Thrissur

Answer: B

8. 2014- Nobel Prize winner in Economics ?

(A) Jean Tirole

(B) Eugene F .Fama

(C) Shuji Nakamura

(D) Patrick Modiano

Answer: A

9. Ringworm is a common infection caused by ?

(A) A Worm

(B) Fungus

(C) Bacteria

(D) Virus

Answer: B

10. The Election Commission of India is set up by which article of Indian Constitution ?

(A) Article 310

(B) Article 316

(C) Article 324

(D) Article 256

Answer: C

11. The approach which is grounded in the theoretical belief that there is an objective reality that can be known to the researcher if she/he uses the correct methods and applies those methods in a correct manner.

(A) Dialectics

(B) Positivism

(C) Interpretivism

(D) Pragmatism

Answer: B

12. One of the prime aims of scientific method in research is to

(A) eliminate spurious relations

(B) improve data interpretation

(C) confirm triangulation

(D) introduce new variables

Answer: A

13. Developing a hypothesis based on an existing theory and designing a research strategy to test the hypothesis is

(A) pragmatic approach

(B) inductive approach

(C) deductive approach

(D) emancipatory approach

Answer: C

14. Knowingly representing the work of others as your own in the manuscript submitted to a journal or publication is

(A) citation

(B) documentation

(C) epigraph

(D) plagiarism

Answer: D

15. The idea of ‘micro-teaching’ was first originated in

(A) Oxford University

(B) Stanford University

(C) Delhi University

(D) Christ University

Answer: B

16. The type of learning which leads to deep learning is

(A) reflective learning

(B) memory level learning

(C) mnemonic technique

(D) conceptual understanding

Answer: A

17. A teacher attempts to shape, control and evaluate the behaviour and attitude of students in accordance with a set standard of conduct. The approach of the teacher is

(A) permissive

(B) constructivist

(C) authoritarian

(D) accommodative

Answer: C

18. After learning certain topics from a particular subject, the student put the ideas together to form a new content. The cognitive process involved is

(A) evaluation

(B) synthesis

(C) analysis

(D) application

Answer: B

19. Effective teaching happens when the teacher

(A) maintains discipline in the class

(B) possesses advanced scholarship in the subject

(C) has skill in teaching and managing the classroom

(D) makes the students actively engage in learning

Answer: D

20. Which among the following is a non-parametric test

(A) ‘t’-test

(B) analysis of variance

(C) chi-square test

(D) all of the above

Answer: C

21. The power to form a new state is vested in

(A) President of India

(B) Union Cabinet

(C) Parliament

(D) Supreme Court

Answer: C

22. Part III of the Constitution deals with

(A) Union and Territories

(B) Citizenship

(C) Directive Principles of State Policy.

(D) Fundamental Rights

Answer: D

23. Writ Petitions are filed before the Supreme Court for the enforcement of

(A) Fundamental Rights

(B) Fundamental Duties

(C) Directive Principles

(D) To declare emergency

Answer: A

24. List II in the VII Schedule of the Constitution is

(A) Union List

(B) Concurrent List

(C) State List

(D) None of the above

Answer: C

25. Duration of Rajya Sabha is

(A) Five Years

(B) Six years

(C) Two years

(D) Permanent

Answer: D

26. The word ‘public servant’ means :

(A) Any person in the service or pay of the Government

(B) Any person in the service or the pay of any local authority

(C) Any person in the service or pay of any corporation established under a State or a Central Act

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

27. The world environment day is celebrated on …………….. of every year

(A) 8th June

(B) 5th September

(C) 2nd October

(D) 1st May

Answer:-Question Cancelled

28. Every request for obtaining information under the Right to Information Act is to be disposed of with in:

(A) 45 days

(B) 90 days

(C) 30 days

(D) 60 days

Answer: C

29. The Supreme Court of India recognized sexual harassment at work place as a violation of human rights in the case of :

(A) Ahmed Khan v Shah Bano Begum

(B) Visakha v State of Rajasthan

(C) Tukaram v State of Maharashtra

(D) Bachan Singh v State of Punjab

Answer: B

30. The information exempted from disclosure under Section 8 of the Right to Information Act includes:

(A) Information received in confidence from a foreign government

(B) Cabinet papers including records of deliberations of the council of ministers and secretaries

(C) Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship

(D) All the above.

Answer: D

31. The binary equivalent of decimal number 20.625 is

(A) 10100.1011

(B) 10100.1100

(C) 10100.1010

(D) 10101.1010

Answer: C

32. A memory that contains 32K memory requires how many different addresses

(A) 32752

(B) 32768

(C) 32640

(D) 31744

Answer: B

33. An SDRAM chip has 4096 rows, a refresh time of 128ms, the memory bus runs at 166MHz and the refresh cycle takes 4 clock cycles. The refresh overhead is:

(A) 0.00076

(B) 0.00770

(C) 0.00740

(D) 0.00748

Answer: A

34. What is the address line for RST 4.5?

(A) 0028H

(B) 0018H

(C) 0020H

(D) 0024H

Answer: D

35. Which of the following is a software interrupt?

(A) RST 6.5

(B) RST 5

(C) INTR

(D) RST 7.5

Answer: B

36. The expression E+((A+B)*D)-C can be written in Reverse Polish Notation as

(A) AB+D*E+C

(B) AB+D*+E-C

(C) -+*+ABDEC

(D) EAB+D*+C

Answer: D

37. The maximum number of I/O devices that can be connected to 8085 microprocessor is

(A) 255

(B) 512

(C) 65536

(D) 256

Answer: C

38. How many pins does a DDR SDRAM DIMM have?

(A) 184

(B) 168

(C) 72

(D) 172

Answer: A

39. UART is

(A) 8255

(B) 8250

(C) 8251

(D) 8279

Answer: B

40. DMA Controller gets complete access to main memory through which technique?

(A) Burst Mode

(B) Memory Stealing

(C) Cycle Stealing

(D) Memory Con

Answer: A

41. Which of the following represents the average-case performance of a quicksort algorithm?

(A) O(n)

(B) O(log n)

(C) O(n/2)

(D) O(nlog n)

Answer: D

42. Which of the following is not the required condition for binary search algorithm?

(A) The list must be sorted

(B) There should be direct access to the middle element in any sublist

(C) There must be mechanism to delete and/or insert element in list

(D) None of these

Answer: C

43. A 3-ary tree is a tree in which every internal node has exactly 3 children. The number of leaf nodes in such a tree with 6 internal nodes will be

(A) 10

(B) 23

(C) 17

(D) 13

Answer: D

44. Of the following sorting algorithms, the one which has a running time that is least dependent on the initial ordering of the input is

(A) Insertion sort

(B) Quick sort

(C) Merge sort

(D) Selection sort

Answer: C

45. The number of edges in a regular graph of degree d and n vertices is

(A) maximum(n,d)

(B) n+d

(C) nd (D) nd/2

Answer: D

46. The depth of a complete binary tree is given by

(A) n log n

(B) log n + 1

(C) log n

(D) n log n + 1

Answer: B

47. Convert the expression ((A+B)*C-(D-E)^(F+G)) to equivalent Postfix notation

(A) AB+C*DE–FG+^

(B) AB-C*DE–FG+^

(C) AB+CDE*–FG+^

(D) AB+*CDE–FG+^

Answer: A

48. Merge sort uses

(A) Divide and Conquer strategy

(B) Backtracking approach

(C) Heuristic search

(D) Greedy approach

Answer: A

49. Linked lists are best suited

(A) for relatively permanent collections of data

(B) for the size of the structure and the data in the structure are constantly changing

(C) for both of above situations

(D) for none of above situations

Answer: B

50. The complexity of the average case of an algorithm is

(A) much more complicated to analyze than that of worst case

(B) much more simpler to analyze than that of worst case

(C) some times more complicated and some other times simpler than that of worst case

(D) none of the above

Answer: A

51. What is the minimum number of units of resource R required such that no deadlock will ever occur in an operating system containing 5 user processes each requiring 2 units of R?

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

Answer: B

52. The page miss ratio in a paged memory is 0.72. The time required to access a page in primary and secondary memory are 10ns and 100ns, respectively. The average time required to access a page is:

(A) 64.8

(B) 35.2

(C) 74.8

(D) 45.2

Answer: C

53. The value of a counting semaphore at a particular instance of time is 5. ‘#’ P operations and 16 V operations were completed on this semaphore subsequently. If the final value of the semaphore is 8, then ‘#’ will be

(A) 11

(B) 12

(C) 16

(D) 13

Answer: D

54. Given the following disk queue:
95, 180, 34, 119, 11, 123, 62, 64
with read-write head initially at the track 50 and the tail track being at 199. If C-LOOK disk scheduling algorithm is followed, then the total number of head movement required is:

(A) 157

(B) 146

(C) 187

(D) 236

Answer: A

55. NTFS stands for

(A) New Type File System

(B) Novel Technology File Service

(C) New Technology File System

(D) New Technology File Service

Answer: C

56. Shift-reduce parsers are

(A) top-down parsers

(B) bottom-up parsers

(C) both top-down and bottom-up parsers

(D) None of the above

Answer: B

57. Consider the following grammar:
S→ABSc|Abc
BA→AB
Bb→bb
Ab→ab
Aa→aa
Which of the following sentences can be derived by the above grammar?

(A) aab

(B) abcc

(C) abbc

(D) abc

Answer: D

58. Which of the following is an intermediate language?

(A) UNCOL

(B) PASCAL

(C) COBOL

(D) SNOBOL

Answer: A

59. If an input file named “Test” is given to Lex, then its output file will be

(A) Test.lex

(B) Test.obj

(C) Test.out

(D) Test.yy.c

Answer: D

60. The Banker’s algorithm is used

(A) to detect deadlock in operating system

(B) to rectify a deadlocked state

(C) to prevent deadlock in operating system

(D) None of the above

Answer: C

61. In the Internet Protocol(IP) suit of protocols, which of the following best describes the purpose of the Address Resolution Protocol?

(A) To translate web addresses to host names

(B) To determine the IP address of a given host name

(C) To determine the hardware address of a given host name

(D) To determine the hardware address of a given IP address

Answer: D

62. Given the basic ER and relational models, which of the following is incorrect?

(A) An attribute of an entity can have more than one value

(B) An attribute of an entity can be composite

(C) In a row of a relational table, an attribute can have more than one value

(D) In arow of a relational table, an attribute can have exactly one value or a NULL value

Answer: C

63. If a relation scheme is in BCNF, then it is also in

(A) 1NF

(B) 2NF

(C) 3NF

(D) both (A) and (B)

Answer:-Question Cancelled

64. Communication circuits that transmit data in both directions but not at the same time are operating in

(A) simplex mode

(B) half duplex mode

(C) full duplex mode

(D) asynchronous mode

Answer: B

65. For which one of the following reasons does Internet Protocol(IP) use the time-to-live(TTL) field in the IP datagram header?

(A) Ensure packets reach destination within that time

(B) Discard packets that reach later than that time

(C) Prevent packets from looping indefinitely

(D) Limit the time for which a packet gets queued in intermediate routers

Answer: C

66. The transport layer protocols used for real time multimedia, file transfer, DNS and email, respectively are

(A) TCP, UDP, UDP and TCP

(B) UDP, TCP, TCP and UDP

(C) UDP, TCP, UDP and TCP

(D) TCP, UDP, TCP and UDP

Answer: C

67. The normal form that is considered adequate for relational database design is

(A) 2NF

(B) 3NF

(C) 4NF

(D) BCNF

Answer: B

68. Result of compilation of DDL statement is stored in a special file called as

(A) database file

(B) symbol table

(C) database schema file

(D) data dictionary

Answer: D

69. The number of entities to which another entity can be associated via a relationship set is called

(A) Messaging Cardinality

(B) Logical Cardinality

(C) Mapping Cardinality

(D) Data Cardinality

Answer: C

70. The network topology that supports bidirectional links between each possible node is

(A) Ring

(B) Star

(C) Tree

(D) Mesh

Answer: D

71. Which of the following UML diagram has a static view

(A) Collaboration

(B) Use case

(C) State-chart

(D) Activity

Answer: B

72. What is the goal of the requirements analysis and specifications phase of the software development life cycle?

(A) Understanding the customer requirements and organize them in an informal document

(B) Determining the scope of the software

(C) Analyzing the cost of the development

(D) none of the above

Answer: A

73. Which diagram in UML shows a complete or a partial view of the structure of a modeled system at a specific time

(A) Sequence diagram

(B) Collaboration diagram

(C) Class diagram

(D) Object diagram

Answer: D

74. SRS document is called a black box specification of a system because

(A) It does not contain the contradictory material

(B) It does not contain the user document

(C) SRS document should specify only the external behavior of the system

(D) none of the above

Answer: C

75. Which of the following is the structural model that demonstrate the other system in the environment of the system being developed

(A) System context model

(B) Interaction model

(C) Environmental model

(D) Both system context and interaction

Answer: A

76. In object oriented design of software which of the following is not true

(A) Object inherits the properties of the class

(B) Classes are defined based on the attributes of the object

(C) Objects can belong to two classes

(D) Classes are always different

Answer: C

77. Quality management in software engineering is also known as

(A) SQA

(B) SQM

(C) SQI

(D) SQA & SQM

Answer: A

78. Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?

(A) Define

(B) Control

(C) Measure

(D) Analyse

Answer: B

79. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management responsibility

(A) Process control

(B) Document control

(C) Control of non-conforming products

(D) Servicing

Answer: A

80. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system version that have been released for customer use

(A) System building

(B) Release management

(C) change management

(D) Version management

Answer: B

81. A class variable is a variable declared as ……………. inside a class.

(A) const

(B) final

(C) static

(D) extends

Answer: C

82. ………….. determines the point of time at which a variable comes into existence in memory.

(A) data type

(B) functions

(C) scope

(D) storage class

Answer: D

83. What does the following program output?

public class ABC
{
public static int function1(int p, int q)
{
if (q==0) return 1;
else if (p<q) return 0;
else
return function1(p-1,q)+function1(p-1,q-1);
}
public static void main(String[] args)
{
System.out.println(ABC.function1(3,2));
}
}

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 1

Answer: B

84. The following program prints:

public class XYZ
{
public static void main (String[] args)
{
byte val=(byte) 128;
System.out.println(val);
}
}

(A) -128

(B) 128

(C) 127

(D) -127

Answer:-Question Cancelled

85. The following Java program segment prints:

String S1=new String("Hello");
String S2=new String("Hello");
if (S1==S2)
System.out.println("They are same");
else
System.out.println("They are not same");

(A) They are same

(B) They are not same

(C) Garbage

(D) Run time error

Answer: B

86. Asynchronous Java Script and XML (Ajax) incorporates

P: Asynchronous data retrieval using XMLHttpRequest

Q: Standards based presentation using XHTML and CSS

R: Data interchanges and manipulation using XML and XSLT

S: Dynamic display and interaction using the Document Object Model

(A) P and R

(B) P and Q

(C) P, R and S

(D) P, Q, R and S

Answer: D

87. In Java, MVC stands for

(A) Model Video Controller

(B) Mobile View Controller

(C) Model View Controller

(D) None of the above

Answer: C

88. Among the following, the Java package which is used by the compiler itself and need not be explicitly imported is:

(A) java.lang

(B) java.awt

(C) java.math

(D) java.applet

Answer: A

89. Distributed applications are created in Java using …………..

(A) RMI and JDBC

(B) CORBA and JDBC

(C) RMI and CORBA

(D) None of the above

Answer: C

90. DMSP stands for:

(A) Distributed Mail Support Plan

(B) Document Management System Protocol

(C) Digital Media Services Protocol

(D) Distributed Mail System Protocol

Answer: D

91. The Artificial intelligence is concerned with designing intelligent computer system that exhibits intelligent characteristics expressed by …………….

(A) Functional behavior

(B) Human behavior

(C) Human brain

(D) Statistical analysis

Answer: B

92. In a program module such as procedure or a function the role of parameters is to

(A) serve as module’s input and output

(B) indicate the number of variables that will be declared in the module

(C) isolate calculations that could potentially cause errors

(D) reassign data types to variables declared in the main program

Answer: A

93. Which of the following functions is performed by the compiler?

(A) Formatting program output

(B) Evaluating the data passed to the program modules

(C) Connecting multiple object programs

(D) Translating a source program into object code

Answer: D

94. A …………… is a set of information that is exchanged between a client and a web browser and a web server during an HTTP transaction.

(A) infoset

(B) clientinfo

(C) cookies

(D) transkie

Answer: C

95. Which of the following steps should be taken first in the development of a web site?

(A) creating links for navigating the site.

(B) drafting the text for the site.

(C) mapping out the structure and contents of the site.

(D) inserting image place holders.

Answer: C

96. PHP scripts are used in

(A) server side scripting

(B) command-line scripting

(C) Client-side GUI application

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

97. Which webserver is developed by Microsoft?

(A) Apache Tomcat

(B) Caudium

(C) Internet Information Services(IIS)

(D) WEBrick

Answer: C

98. Which of the following is not an ASP.NET page event?

(A) Init

(B) Load

(C) Import

(D) Disposed

Answer: C

99. The exact format of frame in case of synchronous transmission depends on whether transmission scheme is

(A) digital

(B) analog

(C) either character oriented or bit-oriented

(D) none of the above

Answer: C

100. A module which is a collection of functions and data designed to be used by another application is called

(A) Abandon

(B) DLL

(C) LCID

(D) PICS

Answer: B

       
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