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Staff Nurse Exam Questions and Answers
Staff Nurse Exam Questions – RCC Question Papers for Staff Nurse Examination:
1
Which of the following set is the evidence of evolution?
Answer
A. Homologous and vestigial organs
2
Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bat?
Answer
A. The arm of a human
3
Which one of the following sets of structures includes only analogous organs?
Answer
A. Wings of butterfly, housefly and bat
4
Which of the following set represents all vestigial structures in the human body?
Answer
C. Coccyx, vermiform appendix and muscles of ear pinna
5
The earliest animal to have been domesticated by man most likely the
Answer
C. Dog
6
Presence of gill slits in the embryo of all vertebrates supports the theory of
Answer
B. Recapitulation
7
Appearance of ancestral characters in the newborn, such as tail, multiple mammals, etc., are known as
Answer
C. Atavistic
8
Evolution is defined as
Answer
C. History and development of race with variations
9
The book named “Philosophic zoologique” was published in 1809 and was written by:
Answer
D. Lamarck
10
Penguin is a bird that lost the use of its wings by not flying. Such a statement would express the views of
Answer
C. Lamarck
11
A scientist kept 80 generations of Drosophila in darkness, even after that the flies had normal eyes. This disapproves law of
Answer
B. Acquired characters
12
Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that
Answer
D. Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters
13
What did CHARLES DARWIN publish in 1859?
Answer
A. Origin of Species by Natural Selection
14
The book ‘Descent of Man and Selection in Relation to Sex’ was written by:
Answer
A. Charles Darwin
15
Darwin worked on Galapagos finches. The number of species of these finches is
Answer
C. 14
16
Which one of the following evolutionists proposed the theory of evolution similar to Charles Darwin’s?
Answer
A. Alfred Russell Wallace
17
The ultimate source of organic variation is
Answer
D. mutations
18
World environment day is
Answer
A. June 5
19
Tendon connects
Answer
B. Bone with muscles
20
Sewage infection of water will be demonstrated by cysts of
Answer
A. Entamoeba
21
Which type of tissue forms glands?
Answer
A. Epithelial
22
Eutrophication leads to death of fish due to
Answer
D. Decreased O2 content
23
Sebaceous glands are found in
Answer
A. Dermis of skin of mammals
24
Minamata disease is a pollution-related disease, which results from
Answer
C. Release of industrial waste mercury into fishing water
25
Which type of tissue forms the framework of the external ear?
Answer
B. Connective
Staff Nurse Exam Questions – SOLVED PAPER OF STAFF NURSE IN HEALTH SERVICES DEPT (CATEGORY NO: 224/2009)
1
The most common pathogenic mechanism of acute pancreatitis is –
Answer
Autodigestion of the pancreas.
2
What does the nurse monitor for, in a patient with Acute Renal Failure?
Answer
Pulmonary oedema and ECG changes.
3
A disease caused by Treponema pallidum is –
Answer
Syphilis.
4
Which of the following is an important nursing intervention for a patient with Cushing Syndrome?
Answer
C. Protect from infection
5
Involvement of which of the following structures will lead to right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia?
Answer
A. Left Middle Cerebral Artery
6
Which one of the following is a common response expected in a patient with stroke, to the change in body image?
Answer
D. Depression.
7
A patient with early osteoporosis must be advised to-
Answer
Stop smoking
8
For doing nasotracheal suctioning, during which of the following patient activities, the catheter should be inserted?
Answer
B. Inhaling
9
The simple most effective method for reducing the risks of stasis of pulmonary secretions is-
Answer
Two hourly position change.
10
What is cyanosis?
Answer
Blue discoloration of the skin.
11
The period from conception to birth is denoted as –
Answer
Prenatal
12
The role of nursing is “having charge of somebody’s health” Whose vision is this?
Answer
Florence Nightingale
13
Which of the following developmental stage corresponds to infancy?
Answer
A. Trust Vs Mistrust
14
Who proposed the nursing theory of self-care deficit?
Answer
Dorothea Orem
15
The head circumference of a normal infant is –
Answer
33-35 cm
16
The leading cause of death in adolescence is –
Answer
Accidents
17
The legal definition of ‘death’ that facilitates organ donation is, cessation of –
Answer
Function of brain
18
The body temperature at which tissues and cells can best function is –
Answer
36-38o C
19
Men have a higher Basal Metabolic Rate because their body contains more-
Answer
Testosterone
20
The mechanism by which body loses heat to the environment, without having direct contact is --?
Answer
Radiation
21. Which of the following structures controls heat loss?
(a) Anterior pituitary (b) Posterior pituitary (c) Posterior hypothalamus (d) Anterior hypothalamus
22
Exposure of the body to subnormal temperature can lead to …
Answer
Frost-bite
23
What is the effect of an antipyretic?
Answer
Reduce fever
24
The volume of blood pumped by the heart during one minute is called….
Answer
Cardiac output
25
What is the normal pulse rate of an infant?
Answer
120-160
26
The phase of respiration in which gases move in and out of the lungs is ….
Answer
Ventilation
27
What is the normal partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood? (mm Hg)
Answer
35-45
28
What is the equipment that indirectly measures arterial oxygen saturation?
Answer
Pulse Oximeter
29
What is the term used to denote regular, abnormally slow respirations?
Answer
Bradypnea
30
What technique of assessment helps to determine ketoacidosis?
Answer
Olfaction
31
Inflammation of skin at the base of the nail is?
Answer
Paronychia
32
The condition in which both eyes do not focus on an object simultaneously is known as?
Answer
Strabismus
33
The most effective way to break the chain of infection is by?
Answer
Hand hygiene
34
How many drops in a standard drip set makes one ml.?
Answer
15
35
The prescription orders 0.125 mg digoxin orally. Tablets containing 0.25 mg is available. How many tablets will you administer?
Answer
1/2
36
A patient who is receiving intravenous fluids develops tenderness, warmth, erythema and pain at the infusion site. Which of the following conditions will you suspect?
Answer
D. Phlebitis
37
When providing oral hygiene to an unconscious patient, care must be taken to prevent?
Answer
Aspiration
38
What is the intrinsic rate of the normal A-V node?
Answer
40-60 per minute
39
Which of the following structures is the pacemaker of the heart?
Answer
A. S-A node
40
The prescription is for two tablespoons of milk of magnesia. How many ml. will you give?
Answer
30 ml
41
Which of the following is intravascular fluid?
Answer
C. Plasma
42
If the serum potassium level is less than normal, the condition is known as –
Answer
Hypokalemia
43
What is electrolyte abnormality likely to develop in a patient with vomiting?
Answer
Hypokalemia
44
How much sodium is normally present in the extracellular fluid? (in Meq/L).
Answer
135-145
45
What is the primary cause of hyperkalemia?
Answer
Renal failure
46
Which of the following is an isotonic solution?
Answer
A. Lactated Ringers
47
A Thousand ml. of Normal Saline is to be infused in 8 hours. What should be the rate of flow per minute?
Answer
30 drops
48
A patient admitted with vomiting, has the following arterial blood gas levels-pH 7.30; PaCO2 36 mm Hg; Pa O2 92mm Hg; and HCO3 18; what is the acid-base imbalance that is present?
Answer
Metabolic acidosis
49
Which of the following is a first-line drug used for pain management?
Answer
A. Acetaminophen
50
Which of the following is the organism that causes peptic ulcer disease?
Answer
C. Helicobacter pylori
Staff Nurse Exam Questions – Updated
51
Which of the following nutrients helps for tissue repair?
Answer
D. Protein
52
Microscopic examination of urine reveals elevated levels of red blood cells. What does it indicate?
Answer
Damage to Glomeruli.
53
Which of the following patient activities helps to relax the external anal sphincter, while administering enema?
Answer
D. Breathing out through the mouth.
54
What length of the catheter tip should be inserted into the rectum, for giving the enema to an adult patient?
Answer
7.5-10 cm
55
The stool discharged from an ostomy is called?
Answer
Effluent
56
Which of the following is the best method to confirm placement of the nasogastric tube:
Answer
D. X-ray of chest and abdomen
57
Which of the following is a common cause of orthostatic hypotension in a bedridden Patient?
Answer
B. Decreased circulating blood volume
58
Which of the following body parts has a condyloid joint?
Answer
C. Wrist
59
Who was the first president of the International Council of Nurses?
Answer
Fenwick
60
Which of the following minerals should be taken by a child suffering from rickets?
Answer
B. Calcium
61
Who introduced antiseptic spray during surgery?
Answer
Joseph Lister
62
A large infection made up of several boils is known as :
Answer
Carbuncle
63
Which of the following drugs will be administered to treat anaphylaxis?
Answer
D. Epinephrine
64
Which of the following is a vesicant drug?
Answer
A. Dactinomycin
65
Pain caused by damage to somatic tissue is known as –
Answer
Nociceptive
66
Which of the following immunoglobulin are responsible for anaphylactic reactions?
Answer
B. IgE
67
The separation and disruption of previously joined wound edges is termed as?
Answer
Dehiscence
68
What types of dressing is Duoderm?
Answer
Hydrocolloid.
69
The role of the complement system in opsonization affects which response of the inflammatory process?
Answer
Cellular.
70
Contractures frequently occur after burn healing because of ….?
Answer
Excess fibrous tissue formation.
71
Association between HLA antigens and diseases is most commonly found in what disease conditions?
Answer
Autoimmune diseases.
72
What is the most common cause of secondary immunodeficiencies?
Answer
Drugs
73
If a person is having an acute rejection of a transplanted organ, which of the following drugs would most likely to be used?
Answer
D. Daclizumab.
74
The primary difference between benign and malignant neoplasm is the ….
Answer
Characteristic of tissue invasiveness.
75
If the blood plasma has a higher osmolality than the fluid within a red blood cell, the mechanism involved in equalizing the fluid concentration is?
Answer
Osmosis.
76
Which of the following symptoms should be watched for in a patient receiving a loop diuretic?
Answer
D. Weak irregular pulse.
77
Which of the following should be watched for in a patient who has just undergone a total thyroidectomy?
Answer
C. Positive chvostek sign
78
Which of the following surgical procedures involves removal of a body organ?
Answer
D. Mastectomy.
79
The cause of arcus senilis is?
Answer
Cholesterol deposits.
80
What is the cause of presbyopia?
Answer
Inflexible lens.
81
The most appropriate technique to assess skin for temperature and moisture is ….
Answer
Palpation
82
Complete absence of melanin pigment in patchy areas on a patient’s hand is described as …..
Answer
Vitiligo
83
What instruction will you give to a patient after a chemical peel?
Answer
Avoid sun exposure
84
Childhood atopic dermatitis is commonly seen in which body area?
Answer
Antecubital space.
85
Which of the following parameters is commonly used to assess adequacy of fluid replacement in a patient with burns?
Answer
Urine output.
86
Which of the following is an earliest manifestation of inadequate oxygenation?
Answer
C. Restlessness
87
A diagnostic procedure which involves removal of pleural fluid for analysis is :
Answer
Thoracentesis.
88
Which of the following helps to identify flail chest in a patient with chest trauma:
Answer
D. Paradoxic chest movement during respiration.
89
Which of the following is an intervention for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
Answer
A. Pursed-lip breathing
90
Which of the following is a normal finding obtained during a lymph node palpation?
Answer
B. Firm, mobile node
91
Which is the most common type of leukemia seen in older adults?
Answer
Chronic lymphocytic.
92
The blood vessel that brings blood to the right atrium is ….
Answer
Inferior Venae Cavae
93
Which of the following conditions is caused by elevated intra ocular pressure?
Answer
A. Glaucoma
94
Which of the following is the most common pathologic finding in individuals at risk for sudden cardiac death?
Answer
D. Atherosclerotic heart disease
95
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for the use of fibrinolytic therapy?
Answer
C. Suspected aortic dissection
96
Which of the following drugs provide relief of anxiety and decreases both preload and after load?
Answer
B. Morphine sulphate
97
In a normal sinus rhythm, the measurement of an S.T.segment is …..?
Answer
0.12 seconds
98
The ECG monitor of a patient admitted with myocardial infarction shows ventricular bigeminy. What is the nurse’s responsibility in this situation?
Answer
Assess the patient’s response
99
What is the usual treatment of Rayanaud’s Phenomenon?
Answer
Calcium Channel blockers.
100
A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of diarrhea with dehydration. What could be the cause of increased peristalsis resulting in diarrhea?
Answer
Parasympathetic stimulation.
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