Staff Nurse Exam Questions and Answers

Are you searching for Staff Nurse Exam Questions and Answers? Here are the best asked questions and answers for staff nurse exam competitive examination. These are repeatedly asked questions for KPSC and ESIC staff nurse examinations.

Staff Nurse Exam Questions and Answers

Staff Nurse Exam Questions – RCC Question Papers for Staff Nurse Examination:

1. Which of the following set is the evidence of evolution?

(a) Homologous and vestigial organs

(b) Analogous and vestigial organs

(c) Homologous and analogous organs

(d) All of the above

Answer: (a) Homologous and vestigial organs

2. Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bat?

(a) The arm of a human

(b) The wing of a butterfly

(c) The tail of a fish

(d) The dorsal fin of a shark

Answer: (a) The arm of a human

3. Which one of the following sets of structures includes only analogous organs?

(a) Wings of butterfly, housefly and bat

(b) Hind legs of horse

(c) Hands of man, monkey and kangaroo

(d) Mandibles of cockroach, mosquito and honeybee

Answer: (a) Wings of butterfly, housefly and bat

4. Which of the following set represents all vestigial structures in the human body?

(a) Vermiform appendix, body hair and cochlear

(b) Wisdom teeth, coccyx and patella

(c) Coccyx, vermiform appendix and muscles of ear pinna

(d) Body hair, muscles of ear pinna and atlas vertebra

Answer: (c) Coccyx, vermiform appendix and muscles of ear pinna

5. The earliest animal to have been domesticated by man most likely the

(a) Horse

(b) Pig

(c) Dog

(d) Cow

Answer: (c) Dog

6. Presence of gill slits in the embryo of all vertebrates supports the theory of

(a) Organic evolution

(b) Recapitulation

(c) Metamorphosis

(d) Biogenesis

Answer: (b) Recapitulation

7. Appearance of ancestral characters in the newborn, such as tail, multiple mammals, etc., are known as

(a) Homologous

(b) Analogous

(c) Atavistic

(d) Vestigial

Answer: (c) Atavistic

8. Evolution is defined as

(a) History of race

(b) Development of race

(c) History and development of race with variations

(d) Progressive history of race

Answer: (c) History and development of race with variations

9. The book named “Philosophic zoologique” was published in 1809 and was written by:

(a) Mendel

(b) Darwin

(c) De Vries

(d) Lamarck

Answer: (d) Lamarck

10. Penguin is a bird that lost the use of its wings by not flying. Such a statement would express the views of

(a) Darwin

(b) Wallace

(c) Lamarck

(d) Huxley

Answer: (c) Lamarck

11. A scientist kept 80 generations of Drosophila in darkness, even after that the flies had normal eyes. This disapproves law of

(a) Natural selection

(b) Acquired characters

(c) Use and disuse

(d) Synthetic theory

Answer: (b) Acquired characters

12. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that

(a) Darwin was correct

(b) Tail is an essential organ

(c) Mutation theory is wrong

(d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters

Answer: (d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters

13. What did CHARLES DARWIN publish in 1859?

(a) Origin of Species by Natural Selection

(b) Species Plantarum

(c) Philosophie Zoologique

(d) De Naturien Familien

Answer: (a) Origin of Species by Natural Selection

14. The book ‘Descent of Man and Selection in Relation to Sex’ was written by:

(a) Charles Darwin

(b) J.B. Lamarck and C. Darwin

(c) F.B. Sumner and E. Darwin

(d) Robert Brown

Answer: (a) Charles Darwin

15. Darwin worked on Galapagos finches. The number of species of these finches is

(a) 10

(b) 12

(c) 14

(d) 11

Answer: (c) 14

16. Which one of the following evolutionists proposed the theory of evolution similar to Charles Darwin’s?

(a) Alfred Russell Wallace

(b) Erasmus Darwin

(c) Thomas Godfrey

(d) Thomas Robert Malthus

Answer: (a) Alfred Russell Wallace

17. The ultimate source of organic variation is

(a) natural selection

(b) sexual reproduction

(c) hormonal action

(d) mutations

Answer: (d) mutations

18. World environment day is

(a) June 5

(b) February 28

(c) August 5

(d) April 28

Answer: (a) June 5

19. Tendon connects

(a) Cartilage with muscles

(b) Bone with muscles

(c) Ligament with muscles

(d) Bone with Bone

Answer: (b) Bone with muscles

20. Sewage infection of water will be demonstrated by cysts of

(a) Entamoeba

(b) Escherichia coli

(c) Pseudomonas

(d) Leishmania

Answer: (a) Entamoeba

21. Which type of tissue forms glands?

(a) Epithelial

(b) Connective

(c) Nervous

(d) Muscle

Answer: (a) Epithelial

22. Eutrophication leads to death of fish due to

(a) Increased O2 content

(b) increased algae content

(c) decreased algae content

(d) Decreased O2 content

Answer: (d) Decreased O2 content

23. Sebaceous glands are found in

(a) Dermis of skin of mammals

(b) Epithelium of stomach of frog

(c) Epithelium of intestine of frog

(d) Epidermis of skin of mammals

Answer: (a) Dermis of skin of mammals

24. Minamata disease is a pollution-related disease, which results from

(a) Release of human organic waste into drinking water

(b) Accumulation of arsenic in atmosphere

(c) Release of industrial waste mercury into fishing water

(d) Oil spills into sea

Answer: (c) Release of industrial waste mercury into fishing water

25. Which type of tissue forms the framework of the external ear?

(a) Epithelial

(b) Connective

(c) Muscle

(d) Nervous

Answer: (b) Connective

Staff Nurse Exam Questions – SOLVED PAPER OF STAFF NURSE IN HEALTH SERVICES DEPT (CATEGORY NO: 224/2009)

1. The most common pathogenic mechanism of acute pancreatitis is –
Ans: Autodigestion of the pancreas.

2. What does the nurse monitor for, in a patient with Acute Renal Failure?
Ans: Pulmonary oedema and ECG changes.

3. A disease caused by Treponema pallidum is –
Ans: Syphilis.

4. Which of the following is an important nursing intervention for a patient with Cushing Syndrome?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Observe for hypotension
(c) Protect from infection (d) Restrict carbohydrate intake.

Ans: Protect from infection.

5. Involvement of which of the following structures will lead to right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Vertebral Artery (c) Brain stem
(d)Right Middle Cerebral Artery.

Ans: Left Middle Cerebral Artery

6. Which one of the following is a common response expected in a patient with stroke, to the change in body image?
(a)Denial (b) Disassociation (c) Delusion (d) Depression.
Ans: Depression.

7. A patient with early osteoporosis must be advised to-
Ans: Stop smoking

8. For doing nasotracheal suctioning, during which of the following patient activities, the catheter should be inserted?
(a)Swallowing (b) Inhaling (c) Exhaling (d) Retching
Ans: Inhaling

9. The simple most effective method for reducing the risks of stasis of pulmonary secretions is-
Ans: Two hourly position change.

10. What is cyanosis?
Ans: Blue discoloration of the skin.

11. The period from conception to birth is denoted as –
Ans: Prenatal

12. The role of nursing is “having charge of somebody’s health” Whose vision is this?
Ans: Florence Nightingale

13. Which of the following developmental stage corresponds to infancy?
(A) Trust Vs Mistrust (b) Autonomy Vs Shame (c) Initiative Vs Guilt (d) Industry Vs Inferiority.

Ans: Trust Vs Mistrust

14. Who proposed the nursing theory of self-care deficit?
Ans: Dorothea Orem

15. The head circumference of a normal infant is –
Ans: 33-35 cm

16. The leading cause of death in adolescence is –
Ans: Accidents

17. The legal definition of ‘death’ that facilitates organ donation is, cessation of –
Ans: Function of brain

18. The body temperature at which tissues and cells can best function is –
Ans: 36-38o C

19. Men have a higher Basal Metabolic Rate because their body contains more-
Ans: Testosterone

20. The mechanism by which body loses heat to the environment, without having direct contact is –?
Ans: Radiation

21. Which of the following structures controls heat loss?
(a) Anterior pituitary (b) Posterior pituitary (c) Posterior hypothalamus (d) Anterior hypothalamus

22. Exposure of the body to subnormal temperature can lead to …
Ans: Frost-bite

23. What is the effect of an antipyretic?
Ans: Reduce fever

24. The volume of blood pumped by the heart during one minute is called….
Ans: Cardiac output

25. What is the normal pulse rate of an infant?
Ans: 120-160

26. The phase of respiration in which gases move in and out of the lungs is ….
Ans: Ventilation

27. What is the normal partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood? (mm Hg)
Ans: 35-45

28. What is the equipment that indirectly measures arterial oxygen saturation?
Ans: Pulse Oximeter

29. What is the term used to denote regular, abnormally slow respirations?
Ans: Bradypnea

30. What technique of assessment helps to determine ketoacidosis?
Ans: Olfaction

31. Inflammation of skin at the base of the nail is?
Ans: Paronychia

32. The condition in which both eyes do not focus on an object simultaneously is known as?
Ans: Strabismus

33. The most effective way to break the chain of infection is by?
Ans: Hand hygiene

34. How many drops in a standard drip set makes one ml.?
Ans: 15

35. The prescription orders 0.125 mg digoxin orally. Tablets containing 0.25 mg is available. How many tablets will you administer?
Ans: 1/2

36. A patient who is receiving intravenous fluids develops tenderness, warmth, erythema and pain at the infusion site. Which of the following conditions will you suspect?
(a) Sepsis (b) Infiltration (c) Fluid overload (d) Phlebitis
Ans: Phlebitis

37. When providing oral hygiene to an unconscious patient, care must be taken to prevent?
Ans: Aspiration

38. What is the intrinsic rate of the normal A-V node?
Ans: 40-60 per minute

39. Which of the following structures is the pacemaker of the heart?
(a) S-A node (b) Septum (c) A-V node (d) Bundle of His
Ans: S-A node

40. The prescription is for two tablespoons of milk of magnesia. How many ml. will you give?
Ans: 30 ml

41. Which of the following is intravascular fluid?
(a) Lymph (b) Pleural fluid (c) Plasma (d) Synovial fluid
Ans: Plasma

42. If the serum potassium level is less than normal, the condition is known as –
Ans: Hypokalemia

43. What is electrolyte abnormality likely to develop in a patient with vomiting?
Ans: Hypokalemia

44. How much sodium is normally present in the extracellular fluid? (in Meq/L).
Ans: 135-145

45. What is the primary cause of hyperkalemia?
Ans: Renal failure

46. Which of the following is an isotonic solution?
(a)Lactated Ringers (b) Half –Normal Saline (c) One-third Normal Saline
(d) Mannitol
Ans: Lactated Ringers

47. A Thousand ml. of Normal Saline is to be infused in 8 hours. What should be the rate of flow per minute?
Ans: 30 drops

48. A patient admitted with vomiting, has the following arterial blood gas levels-pH 7.30; PaCO2 36 mm Hg; Pa O2 92mm Hg; and HCO3 18; what is the acid-base imbalance that is present?
Ans: Metabolic acidosis

49. Which of the following is a first-line drug used for pain management?
(a)Acetaminophen (b) Clonidine (c) Morphine (d) Ketamine
Ans: Acetaminophen

50. Which of the following is the organism that causes peptic ulcer disease?
(a) Staphylococcus (b) Corynebacterium (c) Helicobacter pylori
(d) Streptococcus.
Ans: Helicobacter pylori

Staff Nurse Exam Questions – Updated

51. Which of the following nutrients helps for tissue repair?
(a)Vitamin (b) Fat (c) Carbohydrate (d) Protein
Ans: Protein

52. Microscopic examination of urine reveals elevated levels of red blood cells. What does it indicate?
Ans: Damage to Glomeruli.

53. Which of the following patient activities helps to relax the external anal sphincter, while administering enema?
(a)Separating the buttocks (b) Lubricating the catheter tip
(c)Inserting the catheter slowly (d) Breathing out through the mouth.

Ans: Breathing out through the mouth.

54. What length of the catheter tip should be inserted into the rectum, for giving the enema to an adult patient?
Ans: 7.5-10 cm

55. The stool discharged from an ostomy is called?
Ans: Effluent

56. Which of the following is the best method to confirm placement of the nasogastric tube:
(a) Checking patient’s ability to talk (b) Aspiration of intestinal content
(c) Introducing air and auscultating (d) X-ray of chest and abdomen

Ans: X-ray of chest and abdomen

57. Which of the following is a common cause of orthostatic hypotension in a bedridden Patient?
(a)Increased autonomic response (b) Decreased circulating blood volume
(c) Increased cardiac output (d) Decreased blood pooling
Ans: Decreased circulating blood volume.

58. Which of the following body parts has a condyloid joint?

(a) Shoulder (b) Elbow (c) Wrist (d) Forearm

Ans: Wrist

59. Who was the first president of the International Council of Nurses?
Ans: Fenwick

60. Which of the following minerals should be taken by a child suffering from rickets?
(a)Potassium (b) Calcium (c) Sodium (d) Iron
Ans: Calcium

61. Who introduced antiseptic spray during surgery?
Ans: Joseph Lister

62. A large infection made up of several boils is known as :
Ans: Carbuncle

63. Which of the following drugs will be administered to treat anaphylaxis?
(a) Atropine (b) Sodium bicarbonate (c) Digoxin (d) Epinephrine
Ans: Epinephrine

64. Which of the following is a vesicant drug?
(a)Dactinomycin (b) Morphine (c) Azithrocin (d) Voveran
Ans: Dactinomycin

65. Pain caused by damage to somatic tissue is known as –
Ans: Nociceptive

66. Which of the following immunoglobulin are responsible for anaphylactic reactions?
(a) IgA (b) IgE (c) IgM (d) IgG
Ans: IgE

67. The separation and disruption of previously joined wound edges is termed as?
Ans: Dehiscence

68. What types of dressing is Duoderm?
Ans: Hydrocolloid.

69. The role of the complement system in opsonization affects which response of the inflammatory process?
Ans: Cellular.

70. Contractures frequently occur after burn healing because of ….?
Ans: Excess fibrous tissue formation.

71. Association between HLA antigens and diseases is most commonly found in what disease conditions?
Ans: Autoimmune diseases.

72. What is the most common cause of secondary immunodeficiencies?
Ans: Drugs

73. If a person is having an acute rejection of a transplanted organ, which of the following drugs would most likely to be used?
(a)Tacrolimus (b) Cyclosporine (c) Cellcept (d) Daclizumab.

Ans: Daclizumab.

74. The primary difference between benign and malignant neoplasm is the ….
Ans: Characteristic of tissue invasiveness.

75. If the blood plasma has a higher osmolality than the fluid within a red blood cell, the mechanism involved in equalizing the fluid concentration is?
Ans: Osmosis.

76. Which of the following symptoms should be watched for in a patient receiving a loop diuretic?
(a)Restlessness and agitation (b) Paresthesias. (c)Increased blood pressure
(d)Weak irregular pulse.

Ans: Weak irregular pulse.

77. Which of the following should be watched for in a patient who has just undergone a total thyroidectomy?
(a)Weight gain (b) Depressed reflexes (c) Positive chvostek sign (d) Personality changes.

Ans: Positive chvostek sign

78. Which of the following surgical procedures involves removal of a body organ?
(a) Tracheostomy (b) Laparotomy (c) Mammoplasty (d) Mastectomy.
Ans: Mastectomy.

79. The cause of arcus senilis is?
Ans: Cholesterol deposits.

80. What is the cause of presbyopia?
Ans: Inflexible lens.

81. The most appropriate technique to assess skin for temperature and moisture is ….
Ans: Palpation

82. Complete absence of melanin pigment in patchy areas on a patient’s hand is described as …..
Ans: Vitiligo

83. What instruction will you give to a patient after a chemical peel?
Ans: Avoid sun exposure

84. Childhood atopic dermatitis is commonly seen in which body area?
Ans: Antecubital space.

85. Which of the following parameters is commonly used to assess adequacy of fluid replacement in a patient with burns?
Ans: Urine output.

86. Which of the following is an earliest manifestation of inadequate oxygenation?
(a) Diaphoresis (b) Cyanosis (c) Restlessness (d) Hypotension

Ans: Restlessness

87. A diagnostic procedure which involves removal of pleural fluid for analysis is :

Ans: Thoracentesis.

88. Which of the following helps to identify flail chest in a patient with chest trauma:
(a)Multiple rib fractures seen in X-ray. (b)Decreased movement of chest wall
(c)Tracheal deviation (d) Paradoxic chest movement during respiration.
Ans: Paradoxic chest movement during respiration.

89. Which of the following is an intervention for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
(a) Pursed-lip breathing (b) Chronic steroid therapy (c) High flow oxygen
(d)High Carbohydrate diet
Ans: Pursed-lip breathing

90. Which of the following is a normal finding obtained during a lymph node palpation?
(a) Hard, fixed node (b) Firm, mobile node (c) Enlarged tender nodes
(d)Hard, nontender nodes

Ans: Firm, mobile node

91. Which is the most common type of leukemia seen in older adults?
Ans: Chronic lymphocytic.

92. The blood vessel that brings blood to the right atrium is ….
Ans: Inferior Venae Cavae

93. Which of the following conditions is caused by elevated intra ocular pressure?
(a)Glaucoma (b) Cataract (c) Strabismus (d) Myopia.
Ans: Glaucoma.

94. Which of the following is the most common pathologic finding in individuals at risk for sudden cardiac death?
(a)Aortic valve disease (b) Mitral valve disease
(c) Left ventricular dysfunction (d) Atherosclerotic heart disease
Ans: Atherosclerotic heart disease

95. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for the use of fibrinolytic therapy?
(a) Current use of anticoagulants (b) Severe liver disease
(c) Suspected aortic dissection (d) Active peptic ulcer disease
Ans: Suspected aortic dissection

96. Which of the following drugs provide relief of anxiety and decreases both preload and after load?
(a) Amrinone (b) Morphine sulphate (c) Furosemide
(d)Dobutamine

Ans: Morphine sulphate

97. In a normal sinus rhythm, the measurement of an S.T.segment is …..?
Ans: 0.12 seconds

98. The ECG monitor of a patient admitted with myocardial infarction shows ventricular bigeminy. What is the nurse’s responsibility in this situation?
Ans: Assess the patient’s response

99. What is the usual treatment of Rayanaud’s Phenomenon?
Ans: Calcium Channel blockers.

100. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of diarrhea with dehydration. What could be the cause of increased peristalsis resulting in diarrhea?
Ans: Parasympathetic stimulation.

I hope these Staff Nurse Exam Questions and Answers may help you for your competitive examinations. If this helped you share with your friends.

We are updating more Staff Nurse Exam Questions and Answers.