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PSC HSST Political Science Model Questions and Answers

PSC HSST Political Science Model Questions and Answers: Here are the model questions and answers for HSST Political Science PSC examination. These are the previous asked questions for the PSC HSST Political Science Examination.

PSC HSST Political Science Model Questions and Answers

Question Paper Code: 33/2015/OL
Category Code: 577/2014
Exam: HSST Political Science
Date of Test: 14-12-2015
Alphacode A

1. The founder of Sidhasramam at Alathur in Palghat District was
(A) Brahmananda Sivayogi
(B) Vaikunta Swami
(C) Chattampi Swamikal
(D) Vagbhadananda
Answer: A

2. Name the leader who came into limelight during the Electricity Agitation of 1936
(A) A.K. Gopalan
(B) K. Kelappan
(C) E. Ikkanda Warrier
(D) C. Kesavan
Answer: C

3. Who is known as “Haryana Hurricane”?
(A) Dileep Vengsarkar
(B) Kapil Dev
(C) Anil Kumble
(D) Javagal Sreenath
Answer: B

4. Rakhi Gadi, the latest Indus Valley Site discovered is located in
(A) Haryana
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Punjab
Answer: A

5. Which/who of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: D

6. International Day for the elimination of violence against women is observed on
(A) December 5
(B) November 20
(C) November 25
(D) October 31
Answer: C

7. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution in
(A) 1978
(B) 1976
(C) 1973
(D) 1975
Answer: B

8. Jawahar Rozgar Yojana was introduced in
(A) Fifth Five Year Plan
(B) Sixth Five Year Plan
(C) Seventh Five Year Plan
(D) Eighth Five Year Plan
Answer: C

9. ‘Romancing With Life’ was written by
(A) Dev Anand
(B) Sashi Kapoor
(C) Dileep Kumar
(D) Dharmendra
Answer: A

10. PURA (Providing Urban Amenities to Rural Areas) Project was inaugurated in which state?
(A) Odissa
(B) Tripura
(C) Kerala
(D) Manipur
Answer: B

11. Which country will be the SAARC cultural capital for the year 2015-2016?
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Sri Lanka
Answer: C

12. The Nair Service Society (NSS) was founded on
(A) 1914
(B) 1910
(C) 1941
(D) 1915
Answer: A

13. The first travelogue in Malayalam, Varthamanapustakam, (Book of News) was written by
(A) Arnos Patiri
(B) Paulinose Patiri
(C) Father Hanxleden
(D) Paremmakkal Thoma Kathanar
Answer: D

14. Mahakavi Kumaran Asan’s famous poem, Veenapoovu, was first published in
(A) Malayala Manorama
(B) Mitavadi
(C) Kesari
(D) Swadeshabhimani
Answer: B

15. Name the welfare programme implemented for providing electrification of houses of SC/ST is
(A) NRDP
(B) IAY
(C) RLEGP
(D) Kudeer Jyothi
Answer: D

16. Which scheme envisions a bank account for each person in the country?
(A) Prime Minister’s Empowerment Scheme
(B) Prime Minister’s Bal Vardhan Scheme
(C) None of these
(D) Prime Minister’s Jan Dhan Scheme
Answer: D

17. During which Five Year Plan emergency was clamped in India and new election took place?
(A) Fourth
(B) Third
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth
Answer: C

18. The phrase “Equality before Law” used in Article 14 of Indian Constitution has been borrowed from
(A) Britain
(B) USA
(C) Germany
(D) Greece
Answer: A

19. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in
(A) Preamble
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy
Answer: D

20. The responsibility of Jawahar Rozgar Yojana is vested with
(A) District Collector
(B) Panchayat Raj Institutions
(C) State Government
(D) Central Government
Answer: B

21. The most important task in teaching is
(A) Giving assignments and evaluating it
(B) Providing experiences for the learner towards holistic development
(C) Maintaining discipline in children
(D) Giving sufficient drill
Answer: B

22. Remedial Teaching is a process of instruction given after
(A) Summative Evaluation
(B) Standardized Testing
(C) Formative Evaluation
(D) Diagnostic Testing
Answer: D

23. The state within a person or animal that drive behaviour towards some common goal is
(A) Motivation
(B) Self Actualization
(C) Adjustment
(D) Attitude
Answer: A

24. Which among the following is a learner related factor?
(A) Difficulty of the task
(B) Length of the task
(C) Maturation
(D) Distribution of Practice
Answer: C

25. Which of the following can be taken as a reflection of meaningful learning?
(A) High score in the examination
(B) High degree of retention
(C) Ability to recall
(D) Ability to transfer knowledge in different situations
Answer: D

26. The sampling technique generally used when the population is finite
(A) Purposive sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Systematic sampling
(D) Simple random sampling
Answer: C

27. The purpose of review of related literature is to
(A) Use the literature to identify present knowledge and what is known
(B) Help in defining the problem and operational definition
(C) Identify strength and weakness of previous studies
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

28. A variable that can change due to the action of another variable is known as
(A) Dependent variable
(B) Extraneous variable
(C) Independent variable
(D) Confounding variable
Answer: A

29. The method of collecting data through observation and experimentation, formulation and testing of hypothesis is called
(A) Empirical method
(B) Observation method
(C) Scientific method
(D) Case study
Answer: C

30. First step in research is
(A) Identification of problem
(B) Survey of related literature
(C) Finding methodology
(D) Finding the solutions
Answer: A

31. Which of the following is rejected by Hobbes as the founder of the state?
(A) The view that might is right
(B) Individualism
(C) Concept of authorization
(D) Rational self-preservation as the ground for social contract
Answer: B

32. Who said “Where there is no law there is no freedom”?
(A) T.H. Green
(B) Hobbes
(C) Locke
(D) Rousseau
Answer: C

33. Rousseau won the prize in an essay contest sponsored by the Academy of Dijon in 1749 on the subject
(A) “Has the progress of the sciences and the Arts contributed to corrupt or purify morals?”
(B) “Has the progress of the sciences contributed to corrupt morals?”
(C) “Has the development of the sciences contributed to corrupt or purify morals?”
(D) None of the above
Answer: A

34. Which one of the following theories held that the State is a product and manifestation of the irreconcilability of class antagonisms?
(A) Divine Origin Theory
(B) Anarchist Theory
(C) Marxist-Leninist Theory
(D) Guild-Socialist Theory
Answer: C

35. “Each to count for one and no one for more than one” was the principle propounded by
(A) Lord Bryce
(B) John S. Mill
(C) Grotius
(D) Jeremy Bentham
Answer: D

36. Who is the author of ‘on Liberty’?
(A) Jeremy Bentham
(B) J.S. Mill
(C) Hobhouse
(D) Lindsay
Answer: B

37. Hegel believes that
(A) The real is the rational and the rational is real
(B) Social relations are rooted in the history
(C) It is human consciousness that determines the social life of man
(D) State protects the economic interests of the most powerful
Answer: A

38. The concept of ‘Veil of ignorance’ is related to
(A) John Rawls
(B) Karl Popper
(C) Robert Nozick
(D) Althusser
Answer: A

39. Which great political leader said that the process of capitalist expansion would always be unequal or uneven between countries, industries and firms?
(A) Joseph Stalin
(B) V.I. Lenin
(C) Antonio Gramsci
(D) Mao Tse Tung
Answer: B

40. According to Antonio Gramsci, civil society is primarily geared in the generation of
(A) Dissent
(B) Coercion
(C) Exploitation
(D) Consent
Answer: D

41. In India all revenue and capital grants are distributed by
(A) National Development Council
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Cabinet Committee of the Plan
Answer: B

42. The Constitution provides for a federation, in which each level of government has a parliamentary form of democracy based on the
(A) American Model
(B) Westminster Model
(C) German Model
(D) Canadian Model
Answer: B

43. Vigilance department works under which ministry?
(A) Human Resources and Development Ministry
(B) Defense Ministry
(C) Home Ministry
(D) Prime Minister’s Secretariat
Answer: C

44. Which one of the following statements relating to the power of Judicial Review in India is correct?
(A) Supreme Court can be directly approached for judicial review of legislative decisions
(B) Supreme Court can take up matters for judicial review on its own
(C) Supreme Court can ask lower courts to submit a case for its judicial review
(D) Supreme Court can review its own judgments in the light of new developments
Answer: A

45. Decisions on the defections about disqualification of the members of the Lok Sabha are made by the
(A) Speaker
(B) Secretary to the Parliament
(C) President in accordance with the opinion of the Election Commission
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: C

46. “Right to Education” has been placed in the Indian Constitution under ……………..
(A) 81st Amendment Act
(B) 86th Amendment Act
(C) 85th Amendment Act
(D) 65th Amendment Act
Answer: B

47. The main factor responsible for growth of Communalism in India is ……………
(A) presence of many religion
(B) past record of Communal Conflicts
(C) discriminatory nature of the Constitution
(D) group based Political Mobilization
Answer: D

48. Amendment in provisions relating to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes can be made by
(A) By two-thirds majority of the States
(B) Simple Majority of the Parliament
(C) The States alone
(D) Two-thirds majority of the Parliament
Answer: B

49. The Muslim League decided to boycott Constituent Assembly because
(A) They were maltreated by the non-Muslim members
(B) They were not given adequate representation
(C) They wanted a separate Constituent Assembly
(D) They wanted a Muslim to be elected as the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly
Answer: C

50. The framers of the Constitution borrowed the idea of Fundamental Rights from the Constitution of
(A) Britain
(B) USSR
(C) Canada
(D) USA
Answer: D

51. Which one of the following is an essential pre-requisite for constitutionalism?
(A) Limited Government
(B) Division of Powers
(C) Guarantee of Fundamental Rights
(D) A Written Constitution
Answer: A

52. The input-output approach was developed by
(A) Gabriel A. Almond
(B) Robert A. Dahl
(C) David Easton
(D) Talcott Parson
Answer: C

53. The scope of comparative politics include the study of
(A) Formal structures and their functions
(B) Political processes
(C) Extra-constitutional agencies
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

54. The National Parliamentary body of China is known as
(A) People’s Assembly
(B) National People’s Congress
(C) Supreme Soviet
(D) State Council
Answer: B

55. Structural-functionalism is primarily
(A) A tool of analysis
(B) An explanation for existence of state
(C) An ideology of development
(D) A measurement for comparison
Answer: A

56. The Canadian Federal system differs essentially from the American system as it provides
(A) Strong States
(B) Strong Centre
(C) Neither weak nor a very strong centre
(D) Neither weak nor a very strong state
Answer: B

57. ‘The Supreme Court of America is the third house of the legislature’ (Laski). Which is that power that makes the Supreme Court the third Chamber of the legislature?
(A) Original Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Advisory Jurisdiction
(D) Judicial Review
Answer: D

58. The most powerful legislature in the world is the
(A) Indian Parliament
(B) Swiss Legislature
(C) U.S. Congress
(D) British Parliament
Answer: C

59. Which school of thought believed that capital formation was the basic feature of development?
(A) Neo-Marxian Theory
(B) Neo-Liberal Theory
(C) Economic Maturity Theory
(D) Classical Theory
Answer: D

60. Most favored technique of Pressure groups in the USA is ………………
(A) Boycott and Picketing
(B) Lobbying
(C) Peaceful Agitations
(D) Total Strike
Answer: B

61. The scope of public administration
(A) Depends on the values of the political framework
(B) Depends on the goals of the framework
(C) Depends on the values and goals of the framework
(D) Remains narrow
Answer: A

62. The emergence of ‘New Public Administration’ is associated with
(A) Minnow Brook Conference
(B) American Society of Public Administration
(C) Comparative Administration Group
(D) Scientific Management Association
Answer: A

63. Development Administration is related to
(A) Goal-oriented administrative system
(B) Action oriented administrative system
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) System oriented administrative system
Answer: C

64. The first coherent theory of organization is known as
(A) Bureaucratic Theory
(B) Scientific Management
(C) Human Relations Theory
(D) Classical Theory
Answer: A

65. The term scientific management was used for the first time by
(A) F.W. Taylor
(B) Max Weber
(C) Louis Brandies
(D) Elton Mayo
Answer: C

66. The term ‘Representative Bureaucracy’ has been coined by
(A) Martin Albraw
(B) Max Webber
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Donald Kingsley
Answer: D

67. Perspective planning refers to the formulation of
(A) Long term plans
(B) Short term plans
(C) Five Year Plans
(D) Medium range plans
Answer: A

68. The reforms in the monetary and banking policies of the country are called
(A) Budgetary Reforms
(B) Administrative Reforms
(C) Banking Reforms
(D) Financial Reforms
Answer: D

69. Herbert Simon’s Model of decision-making is known as
(A) Disjointed Incrementalism
(B) Mixed Scanning
(C) Behavior Alternative
(D) Policy Science
Answer: C

70. Big Democracy is the work of
(A) P.H. Appleby
(B) D. Waldo
(C) H.A. Simon
(D) Elton Mayo
Answer: A

71. Who among the following theorists is associated with neo-realism in international politics?
(A) Hans Morgenthau
(B) Kenneth Waltz
(C) John Ruggie
(D) Barry Buzan
Answer: B

72. The ‘authoritative allocation of values’ was a concept given by
(A) Almond and Powell
(B) Lass Well
(C) David Easton
(D) Talcott Parson
Answer: C

73. The most important factor responsible for the globalization taking place is
(A) Economic Liberalization
(B) Political Liberalization
(C) Trade Liberalization
(D) Technological change brought about by relentless economic competition
Answer: D

74. The military alliances are formed on the basic concept of
(A) Co-operative security
(B) Collective security
(C) Comprehensive security
(D) Collective defense
Answer: B

75. Which one of the following non-governmental organizations is exclusively involved in human rights advocacy?
(A) Oxfam
(B) Caritas
(C) Ford Foundation
(D) Amnesty International
Answer: D

76. Which one of the following statement is not correct?
(A) Diplomats now get greater latitude than they enjoyed in 19th century
(B) Diplomacy is an instrument of foreign policy
(C) Diplomats do not play now as great a role in international negotiations as they once did
(D) Major international agreements are usually negotiated by foreign ministers
Answer: A

77. ‘Agenda for peace’ proposal is associated with
(A) Commonwealth of Nations
(B) League of Nations
(C) United Nations
(D) India
Answer: C

78. Which one of the following factors influenced the foreign policy of India?
(A) Geographical location of the country
(B) Plural character of the Indian society
(C) International environments
(D) All the above
Answer: D

79. Which one of the following has been main irritant in the relations between India and Pakistan in recent years?
(A) Kashmir Issue
(B) Growing intimacy between USA and Pakistan
(C) Growing intimacy between China and Pakistan
(D) Cross border terrorism
Answer: D

80. Which one of the following is the easiest method for the peaceful settlement of disputes between two states?
(A) Negotiations
(B) Good Offices
(C) Mediation
(D) Enquiry
Answer: A

81. The type of variable that link a cause-and-effect relationship are called
(A) Intervening Variables
(B) Independent Variables
(C) Dependent Variables
(D) Extraneous Variables
Answer: A

82. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The objectives should be stated only in a statement form
(B) The objectives should be stated only in question form
(C) The objectives can be stated either in the form of a statement or in a question form
(D) None of the above
Answer: C

83. Variables of study are selected during
(A) Data collection
(B) Sample selection
(C) Stating the hypothesis
(D) Scientific definition of the problem
Answer: D

84. An operational definition of a term used in the title of a research problem refers to
(A) A definition quoted in glossaries or dictionaries
(B) A most acceptable definition of the term
(C) A comprehensive definition of the term
(D) A definition that gives meaning to the term and helps into quantification
Answer: D

85. ‘Summary of the Literature’ is
(A) A Bibliography
(B) A description of the significant findings from each relevant reference that the researcher searched
(C) A description of the main findings that are organized around main themes that emerge from literature search
(D) None of the above
Answer: B

86. The term ‘Action Research’ was coined by
(A) Corey
(B) Travers
(C) Dewey
(D) Lehmann
Answer: A

87. The best method of sampling whenever the population is homogeneous is
(A) Stratified
(B) Purposive
(C) Random
(D) Incidental
Answer: C

88. Sampling refers to
(A) Selecting small portion of a universe
(B) Selecting a large population of a universe
(C) Selecting a representative portion of a population
(D) Selecting small portion of a population
Answer: D

89. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Interview schedule is a research tool
(B) If the study population is illiterate, data collection using questionnaire is appropriate
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer: B

90. SPSS stands for
(A) Statistical Package for the Social Sciences
(B) Software Package for Social Sciences
(C) Social Progress and Social Sciences
(D) None of the above
Answer: A

91. To pretend, I actually do the thing: I have therefore only pretended to pretend.
(A) Jacques Derrida
(B) Ernest Hass
(C) E.H. Carr
(D) Quincy Wright
Answer: A

92. The 20th century totalitarianism represents an onion like structure. This statement is attributed to
(A) Karl Popper
(B) Raymond Aron
(C) Hannah Arendt
(D) K.J. Holsti
Answer: B

93. Who described bureaucracy as a continental nuisance?
(A) R.K. Merton
(B) Max Weber
(C) Thomas Carlyle
(D) M. Crozier
Answer: C

94. Which is the ‘cleft country’ according to Samuel P. Huntington in clashes of civilization?
(A) India
(B) South Africa
(C) Romania
(D) Uganda
Answer: A

95. Who developed the concept social constructivism?
(A) R. Young
(B) Lev Vygotsky
(C) Samuel P. Huntington
(D) E.H. Carr
Answer: B

96. ……………… is a critical outlook concerned with the relationship between text and meaning.
(A) Deconstruction
(B) Post Humanism
(C) Post Structuralism
(D) Social Constructivism
Answer: A

97. Rawl’s principle of distributive justice is based on the notion of
(A) Desert
(B) Difference Principle
(C) Equality
(D) Entitlement
Answer: B

98. The thinker who has been characterized as a ‘reluctant democrat’ is
(A) J. Bentham
(B) E. Burke
(C) T.H. Green
(D) J.S. Mill
Answer: D

99. Who among the following has described the world wide triumph of liberal democracy as the ‘end of history’?
(A) Samir Amin
(B) David Held
(C) Francis Fukuyama
(D) Samuel P. Huntington
Answer: D

100. The concept of Social Capital has been put forward by ………………
(A) Samuel P. Huntington
(B) Robert Putnam
(C) V.S. Naipaul
(D) Bill Gate
Answer: B

 

 

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